Now, if such of the elect as died before the death of the Christ, had so complete an exemption from all liability and responsibility to suffer the divine displeasure for their guilt, as to be exalted to heaven, and actually placed in the bosom of eternal love, can there be any reason why the whole election of grace should not, on the very same ground, have the very same exemption? Did not they all stand alike related to him as their surety? Did he not engage at once and alike for them all? How then can any man think, that Christ engagement as Surety, produced more and greater effects in favor of a part than of the whole of the elect? And how could one of them be in any sense liable to wrath, one moment after Christ became their surety? Or how does the removal of the liability of the elect to suffer the wrath of God by the death of Christ, agree with the efficacy and the efficiency of Christ surety-ship and the salvation of sinners prior to his death?